Societas Via Romana - Discussion Archives

Salvete omnes.....

I am in need of assistence figuring out how societas got to look the way it does. Proto-Italic *sokiotats should yield socItas the way *wiota yields vIta, but of course it doesn't...it gives us societas instead. Sihler says this is the result of analogy...but analogy with what?!

Appia Vatinia Ursa

heh, you've actually got me totally stumped. I'd never thought of this before. It should be socitas, just like bonitas etc... Let me do some googling and see if I can come up with anything.

Oh, and welcome to SVR!

Argh. Niedermann says that i+vowel or e+vowel goes to o before velar l and to e before any other consonant. This takes care of *sokiotats, but it seems to leave tibicen unaccounted for, since *tibiakan should therefore yield tibiecen. I am pretty new to historical linguistics (and Niedermann is in French, which I don't actually know)....am I just missing something here? Thanks for your help!