Posted: Fri May 06, 2005 1:58 pmSalve,
This makes me wonder how your regular Roman would have said it... For example, in Dutch and German there are instances where one word order is much more common than the other (can't think of an example now, sorry), which is regarded as archaic, and usually only used by intellectuals. This leads me to think that in Latin, too, the commoners might never have used 'amo te' but instead would always have used 'te amo', while there was some variation among the upper class.
Draco
This makes me wonder how your regular Roman would have said it... For example, in Dutch and German there are instances where one word order is much more common than the other (can't think of an example now, sorry), which is regarded as archaic, and usually only used by intellectuals. This leads me to think that in Latin, too, the commoners might never have used 'amo te' but instead would always have used 'te amo', while there was some variation among the upper class.
Draco